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Q1. Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
Q2. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administrtion?
Q3. Consider the following establishments: (1) Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration. (2) Heavy Water Board (3) Indian Rare Earths Limited (4) Uranium Corporation of India. Which of these is/are under the Department of Atomic Energy?
Q4. Consider the following statements about the minorities in India: (1) The Government of India has notified five communities, namely, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists and Zoroastrians as Minorities. (2) The National Commission for Minorities was given statutory status in 1993. (3) The smallest religious minority in India are the Zoroastrians (4) The Constitution of India recognises and protects religious and linguistic minorities. Which of these statements are correct?
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India: (1) There are 24 High Courts in the country. (2) Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one state. (3) No Union Territory has a High Court of its own. (4) Judges of the High Courts hold office till the age of 62. Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q6. Match the following Amendments to the Constitution (in alphabets) and their contents (in numbers): (A) The Constitution (Sixtyninth Amendment) Act, 1991. (B) The Constitution (Seventy fifth Amendment) Act, 1994. (C} The Constitution (Eightieth Amendment) Act 2000. (D) The Constitution (Eighty Third Amendment) Act 2000. ..... (1) Establishment of State Level Rent Tribunals (2) No reservations for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh. (3) Constitution of Panchayats in villages or at other local levels. (4) Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission. (5) According the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi.
Q7. If a new State of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended?
Q8. Consider the following statements with regard to the politial parties in India: (1) The Representation of the People Act 1951 provides for the registration of political parties. (2) Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission. (3) A national level political party is one which is recognised in four or more states. (4) During the 1999 general elections, there were six national and 48 state level parties recognised by the Election Commission. Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q9. Match the following Articles of the Constitution (in alphabets) and their content/provisions (in numbers): (A) Article 54 (B) Article 75 (C} Article 155 (D) Article 164 ….. (1) Election of the President of India (2) Appointment of the PM and the Council of Ministers (3) Appointment of the Governor of a State (4) Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a State.
Q10. National Agricultural Insurance Scheme, replacing the earlier Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme, was introduced in the year …….
Q11. "……instil into the vast millions of workers, men and women, who actually do the job, a sense of partnership and of cooperative performance ….." The above passge relates to ……
Q12. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
Q13. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as …..
Q14. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India: (1) He is appointed by the President of India (2) He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge of the Supreme Court. (3) He must be a member of either House of Parliament. (4) He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament. Which of these statements are correct?
Q15. Consider the following functionaries: (1) Cabinet Secretary (2) Chief Election Commissioner (3) Union Cabinet Ministers (4) Chief Justice of India.. Their correct sequence in the Order of Precedence is …..
Q16. The State which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is …
Q17. A college student desires to get eleted to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that ….
Q18. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Q19. The first Indian State to have its Human Development Report prepared and released by Amartya Kumar Sen in Delhi is ……
Q20. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties:
Q21. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is NOT correct?
Q22. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act 1992 refers to the ……
Q23. Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of India: (1) Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India. (2) It has formations in eacha State as State Human Rights Commissions. (3) Its powers are only recommendatory in nature. (4) It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
Q24. The most short lived of all of the Britain's constitutional experiments in India was the
Q25. The population growth rate in Kerala is the lowest among major Indian States. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted reasons for this?
Q26. The Constitution of India recognises only …..
Q27. In the Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of the following is NOT one such provision?
Q28. Consider the following statements: An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the (1) Lok Sabha (2) Rajya Sabha (3) State Legislatures (4) President. Which of the above statements is correct?
Q29. Consider the following statements: Regional disparities in India are high and have been rising in recent years because (1) There is persistent investment over time only in select locales. (2) Some areas are agro-climaticlly less conducive to development. (3) Some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and economic opportunities. (4) Some areas have faced continuous political instability. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q30. Consdier the following Statements about the amendments to the Election Law by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act 1996: (1) Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National Flag or the Constitution of India shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to the Parliament and the state legislature for six years from the date of conviction. (2) There is an increae in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha. (3) A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parlimentary Constituency. (4) No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q31. A British citizen staying in India cannot claim Right to ….
Q32. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q33. India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under the law? (1) Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government run schools (2) Preferential allotment of land for setting up of business. (3) Ramps in public buildings. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
Q34. Considr the following statements about European Union: (1) The European Union was known earlier as the European Community. (2) The Single European Act (1986) and the Maastricht Treaty were the milestones in its formations. (3) Citizens of the European Union countries enjoy dual citizenship. (4) Switzerland is a member of this European Union. Which of the above statements are correct?
Q35. Which one of the following legislations does not deal with the protection of environment?
Q36. Match the following international bodies (in alphabets) and the purpose of their function (in numbers): (A) World Trade Organisation (WTO) (B) International Development Agency (IDA) (C} International Monetary Fund (IMF) (D) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) ..... (1) Provides loans to address short term balance of payment problems. (2) Multi-lateral trade negotiations body (3) Sanction of soft loans. (4) Facilitating lending and borrowing for reconstruction and development.
Q37. MERCOSUR consists of group of countries of ……
Q38. Assertion (A): The first ever Bill to make primary education compulsory in India was rejected in 1911. Reason {R}: Discontent would have increased if every cultivator could read.
Q39. When the Indian Muslim League was inducted into the interim government in 1946, Liyaqat Ali Khan was assigned the portfolio of …..
Q40. The Landmines Conference to sign the historic treaty was held in the capital city of
Q41. The Indian economist who was associated with the WTO draft document is …..
Q42. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India, contains provisions regarding Anti Defection Act?
Q43. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British Parliamentary system in that India has……
Q44. Panchayati Raj was first introduced in India in October 1959 in …….
Q45. What are the official languages of UNO?
Q46. In the presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have s many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly. As at present (2011) the expression of " population " here means the population as ascertained by the .....
Q47. Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India? (1) The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament. (2) The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.
Q48. Match the following functionaries (in alphabets) with the Oaths of Affirmation (in numbers): (A) President of India (B) Judges of the Supreme Court {C} Members of Parliament (D) Ministers of the Union …… (1) Secrecy of Information. (2) Faithful Discharge of Duties. (3) Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution of India. (4) Upholding the Constitution and the Law.
Q49. In which one of the following countries are 75% of seats in both Houses of Parliament filled on the basis of first-past-the-post system and 25% on the basis of proportional representation system of election?
Q50. In the following quotation, " WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and opportunity; and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; In our Constituent Assembly this X do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constiution." X stands for ....