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Q1. Assertion (A): Wilful disobedience or/non-compliance of Court orders and use of derogatory language about judicial behaviour amounts to contempt of court. Reason {R}: Judicial activism cannot be practised without arming the judiciary with punitive powers to punish contemptuopus behaviour.

Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Q2. The Dinesh Goswami Committee recommended ……

The Constitution of State Level Election Commissions

List System of election to the Lok Sabha

Governmental funding of parliamentary elections.

A ban on the candidature of independent candidates in the parliamentary elections.

Q3. Which one of the following is NOT a principle of "Panchsheel"?

Non-alignment

Peaceful co-existence

Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty

Mutual non-interference in each other's internal affairs.

Q4. In which one of the following countries will the no-confidence motion to bring down the government passed by the legislature be valid only when the legislature is able to find simultaneously a majority to elect a successor government?

France

Germany

Italy

Portugal

Q5. Which one of the following was NOT proposed by the 73rd Constitutional amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?

Thirty percent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women candidates at all levels.

The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj institutions

The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children

The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superseded or dissolved by the State Government.

Q6. In which year the Central Government passed the "Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act"?

2001

2003

2005

2007

Q7. Proportionate representation is NOT necessary in a country where …..

there are no reserved constituencies

a two party system has developed

the first past the post system prevails

there is a fusion of presidential and parliamentary forms of government.

Q8. The PM of which one of the following countries is chosen by the ruling prince from a slate of three candidates put up to him by the President of France?

San Marius

Liechtenstein

Malta

Monaco

Q9. State Funding of elections takes place in …..

USA and Canada

Germany and Austria

Britain and Switzerland

France and Italy

Q10. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in …..

Australia

USA

Canada

Q11. Assertion (A): The reservation of thirty three per cent of seats for women in Parliament and State legislatures does not require constitutional amendment. Reason {R}: Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty three per cent of seats they contest to women candidates without any constitutional amendment.

Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Q12. If the PM of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament,

he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no confidence motion

he will not be able to speak on the Budget in the Lower House

He can make statements only in the Upper House

He can continue to be the PM eventhough he is not a member of the lower house.

Q13. Which one of the following statements is correct? The Prime Minister of India ……..

is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are members of either House of the Parliament

Can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the President of India in this regard

Has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet

Has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary powers vested with the President of India

Q14. Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the President of India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?

Lok Sabha

Rajya Sabha

State Legislative Councils

State Legislative Assemblies.

Q15. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

advisory jurisdiction

appellate jurisdiction

original jurisdiction

Constitutional jurisdiction

Q16. Of the four forms of political protests mentioned below, which one is derived from the name of the person who used it as a political weapon for the first time?

Boycott

Gherao

Bandh

Hartal

Q17. Which one of the following first mooted the idea of a Constituent Assembly to frame a Constitution for India?

Swaraj Party in 1934

Congress Party in 1936

Muslim League in 1942

All Parties Conference in 1946

Q18. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to ……

the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court.

Special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India

Discretionary powers of the Governor of the State

Special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard.

Q19. According to the Constitution of India, the term "District Judge" shall NOT include …..

Chief Presidency Magistrate

Sessions Judge

Tribunal Judge

Chief Judge of a Small Cause Court

Q20. Consider the following statements: (1) Afforestation and development of wastelands (2) Reforestation and replantation in existing forests. (3) Encouraging the wood substitutes and supplying other types of fuel (4) Promotion of wide use of insecticides and pesticides to restrict the loss of forest area from degradation caused by pests and insects. The National Forest Policy of 1988 includes ......

1,2,3 and 4

2 and 4 only

1,3 and 4

1,2 and 3

Q21. Consider the following statements: (1) No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since…. (1) It will be violative of the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression. (2) It will be violative of the Right to Freedom of Conscience and Practice and Propagation of Reglion. (3) There is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the National Anthem. Of these statements .....

1 and 2 are correct

2 and 3 are correct

1, 2 and 3 are correct

none is correct.

Q22. B.R. Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent Assembly from ….

West Bengal

Bombay Presidency

Madhya Bharat

Punjab

Q23. " They are fantastically diverse. They speak hundreds of languages and dialects. They comprise scores of ethnic groups. They include highly industrialised economies and up and coming economies. They span half the surface of the earth and are home to two fifths of the world's population." The group of countries referred to here belongs to ......

APEC

SAPTA

CIS

Q24. The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crime Act (1919) was popularly known as ……

Rowlatt Act

Pitt's India Act

Indian Arms Act

Ilbert Bill

Q25. Assertion (A): The word ' minority ' is not defined in the Constitution of India. Reason {R}: The minorities Commission is NOT a constitutional body. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Q26. Which one of the following countries has more or less evolved a two-party system?

Sri Lanka

Bangladesh

Pakistan

Myanmar

Q27. Consider the following statements: Most international agencies which fund development programmes in India on inter-governmental agreements, mainly provide……(1) technical assistance (2) soft loans which are required to be paid back with interest (3) Grants, not required to be paid back. (4) Food assistance to alleviate poverty. Of these statements,

2 and 4 are correct

1,2 and 4 are correct

3 and 4 are correct

1,2 and 3 are correct

Q28. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up?

Single tier structure of local self government at the village level

two tier system of local self government at the village and block levels.

three tier structure of local self government, at the village, block and district levels

four tier system of local self government at the village, block, district and state levels.

Q29. If the number of seats allocated to a State in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that State will be …..

Q30. In the Indian context, the term " Denotified Tribes " refers to …..

Tribes which are aboriginals

Nomadic Tribes

Tribes practising shifting cultivation

Tribes which were earlier classified as criminal tribes.

Q31. Which one of the following is true about "Jawahar Rozgar Yojana -- (JRY)?

It was launched during the Prime Ministership of Indira Gandhi

It aims at creating one million jobs annually

The largest group of JRY are the Urban poor living below the poverty line

Under the scheme 30% of the employment generated is reserved for women.

Q32. With reference to National Rural Haealth Mission, which of the following are the jobs of "ASHA" a trained community health worker? (1) Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care check up (2) Using pregnancy tests kits for early detection of pregnancy (3) Providing information on nutrition and immunization (4) Conducting the delivery of the baby.

1,2 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

all of them

Q33. With what purpose is the Government of India promoting the concept of "Mega Food Parks?" (1) To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry. (2) To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage. (3) To provide emerging and ecofriendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs. Select the correct answer.

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

all of them.

Q34. Which one of the following political parties is/are national parties? (1) Muslim League (2) Revolutionary Socialist Party (3) All India Forward Bloc (4) Peasnts nd Workers Party of India

1,2 and 3

2 and 4

3 only

none of these

Q35. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly the candidate who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that ……

the polling was very poor

the election was for a multimember constituency

the elected candate's victory over his nearest rival was very marginal

a very large number of candidates contested the election

Q36. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one half of the States? (1) Election of the President (2) Representation of States in Parliament (3) Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule (4) Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State.

1,2 and 3

1,2 and 4 are correct

1,3 and 4

2,3 and 4

Q37. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?

elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament

Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament

Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature

Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature

Q38. Which one of the following States of India does NOT have a Legislative Council so far, even though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act 1956 provides for it?

Maharashtra

Bihar

Karnataka

Madhya Pradesh

Q39. In the interim government formed in 1946, the Vice President of the Executive Council was …..

Jawaharlal Nehru

Dr.S.Radhakrishnan

C.Rajagopalachari

Dr.Rajendra Prasad

Q40. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced from this? (1) No Governor can be removed from office till the completion of his term. (2) No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Q41. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc., (Art. 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under …..

The Right to equality

The cultural and educational Rights

The Right against Exploitation

The Right to Freedom of Religion

Q42. Which of the following constitute the World Bank? (1) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (2) International Finance Corporation (3) International Development Association (4) International Monetary Fund .

1,2 and 3

1 and 2

3 and 4

1,2,3 and 4

Q43. The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with ……

Denationalisation

Electoral reforms

Steps to put down insurgency in the North East

The problem of the Chakmas

Q44. Which one of the following is NOT explicitly state in the Constitution of India, but followed as a convention?

The Finance Minister is to be a member of the Lower House

The PM has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower House

All the parts of India are to be represented in the Council of Ministers

In the evernt of both the President and the Vice President demitting office simultaneously before the end of their term, the Speaker of the Lower House of Parliament will officiate as the President.

Q45. The signatories to the treaty banning chemical weapons include …..

USA, Russia, India, Iran and Israel

Iraq, Libya, India, Russia and China

Brazil, Angola, North Korea, Pakistan and USA

Syria, Sri Lanka, Japan, singapore and France.

Q46. Which one of the following is INCORRECT in respect of Local Government in India?

According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the federal system

30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women

Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission

Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission.

Q47. The "Barrah dacoity " was the first major venture of the revolutionary terrorists of the freedom movement in ….

Bombay - Karnataka

Punjab

East Bengal

The Madras Presidency

Q48. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?

The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission

The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States

The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned.

Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election Commission.

Q49. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extra-legal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India? (1) The National Development Council (2) The Governor's Conference (3) Zonal Councils (4) The inter-state Council.

1 and 2

1,3 and 4

3 and 4

4 only.

Q50. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is NOT identified as its objective?

to provide self governance

to recognise traditional rights

to create autonomous regions in tribal areas

to free tribal people from exploitation

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