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Q1. In which state of India, it is legal for a Hindu male and illegal for a Muslim male to have more than one living wife?

Nagaland

Mizoram

Goa

Arunachal Pradesh

Q2. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India? (1) The Chairman, Finance Commission (2) The Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission (3) The Chief Minister of a Union Territory.

1 only

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

Q3. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that …..

certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated

Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away

The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in art.368.

The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is not a part of the Constitution and at the same time represents its real spirit.

Q4. According to the newly adopted Constitution of Russia, the PM is appointed by ….

The State Duma, the Lower Chamber of the Federal Assembly

The President with the consent of the State Duma

The President, with the consent of the Federal Council

The Federal Council

Q5. Which of the following statements regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are correct?(1) It is binding on the Supreme Court to give its opinion on any matter referred to it by the President. (2) The full bench of the Supreme Court hears any reference made to it under its power of advisory jurisdiction. (3) The opinion given by the Supreme Court on a reference under advisory jurisdiction is not binding on the government. (4) Not more than one reference at a time can be made to the Supreme Court under its power of advisory jurisdiction.

1 and 2

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

2 and 4

Q6. Which one of the following statements is correct?

All the members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by State Legislative Assemblies

As the Vice President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, only a member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vice President.

A point of difference between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is that while a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any State in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from where he is contesting.

The Constitution of India explicitly prohibits the appointment of a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha to the post of a minister.

Q7. Freedom of the Press in India …..

is specifically provided in Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution

is implied in the wider freedom of expression guaranteed by Article 19 (1) (a) of the constitution

is guaranteed under the provisions of Article 361 A of the Constitution

Emanates from the operation of the rule of law in the country.

Q8. Which one of the following statements regarding "Exit Poll" is correct?

"Exit Poll" is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding the candidate in whose favour they had exercised their franchise.

"Exit Poll" and "Opinion Poll" are one and the same.

"Exit Poll" is a device through which results of voting can be most exactly predicted

"Exit Poll" is an administrative device made recently by the Chief Election Commissioner to prevent impersonation.

Q9. Who among the following became the PM of India, without being earlier the CM of a State? (1) Morarji Desai (2) Charan Singh (3) V P Singh (4) Chandrasekhar (5) P.V.Narasimha Rao

1,2 and 4

2,3 and 5

2 only

4 only

Q10. Who among the following became the PM of India, without being earlier the Central Minister?

V.P.Singh

Deve Gowda

Charan Singh

P.V.Narasimha Rao

Q11. Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal?

A written and rigid constitution

An independent judiciary

Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre

Distribution of powers between the Centre and the States

Q12. "The Uniting for Peace Resolution" adopted by the UN has ….

enhanced the powers of the General Assembly in a comprehensive way

reduced the powers of the General Assembly

made no difference to the powers of the General Assembly

empowered the General Assembly to act in specific situations in matters of peace and security.

Q13. Which one of the following statements regarding the "veto" power in the Security Council is correct according to the UN charter?

The decisions of the Security Council on all non-procedural matters must be made by an affirmative vote of nine members, including the concurring votes of the permanent members of the Council

Every permanent member of the Security Council can prevent any decision from being accepted, by vetoing it

The term was used in Art. 27 of the UN Charter to enable any permanent member of the Security Council to prevent any resolution from being passed by the majority.

Any member of the Security Council can prevent any resolution from being passed by voting against it.

Q14. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as "municipal relations"?

Centre's control of the State in the legislative sphere

Centre's control of the State in financial matters

Centre's control of the State in the administrative sector

Centre's control of the State in the planning process

Q15. Assertion (A): In India, the political parties which formed the governments represented the majority of seats secured in the elections to the House of the People at the centre and legislative Assemblies in the States but not the majority of votes. Reason {R}: The elections based on the majority-vote-system decide the result on the basis of relative majority of votes secured.

Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Q16. Which one of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?

A Single Citizenship

Three lists in the Constitution

Dual Judiciary

A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution

Q17. Which one of the following is in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India?

Population control and family planning

Public Health and Sanitation

Capitation Taxes

Treasure Trove

Q18. Which one of the following statements regarding the office of the Speaker is correct?

He holds office during the pleasure of the President

He need not be a member of the House at the time of his election but has to become a member of House within six months from the date of his election.

He loses his office if the House is dissolved before the end of its normal tenure

If he intends to resign, the letter of his resignation is to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Q19. The first political organisation established in India in 1838 was known as …..

British India Society

Zamindari Association

Bengal British India Society

Settlers Association

Q20. Match the following Features of the Indian Constitutions (in alphabets) with the countries from which they have been borrowed (in numbers): (A) Fundamental Rights (B) Parliamentary System of Government (C} Emergency Provisions (D) Directive Principles of State Policy ..... (1) UK (2) USA (3) Ireland (4) Germany (5) Canada.

A2, B4, C5, D1

A5, B1, C3, D4

A2, B1, C4, D3

A1, B2, C4, D3

Q21. The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to …..

The Hindu Code Bill

The PEPSU Appropriation Bill

The Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill

The Dowry Prohibition Bill.

Q22. The Chief Minister of a State in India is NOT eligible to vote in the Presidential election if …..

he himself is a candidate

he is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State Legislature

he is a member of Upper House of the State legislature

he is a caretake Chief Minister.

Q23. When the "couple protection rate" is going up …..

Birth rate must necessarily fall

Birth rate will fall only if couples are of younger age

Death rate must necessarily fall

infant mortality rate must be falling

Q24. The Swaran Singh Committee considered the question of …..

More autonomy to Punjab on the model of Jammu and Kashmir

The suitability of the Presidential form of Government of India

The precedence of the Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights

Administrative Reforms.

Q25. The Employment Guarantee Scheme, of rural work programme, was first stated in …..

West Bengal

Punjab

Kerala

Maharashtra

Q26. Which one of the following is INCORRECT in respect of Parliamentary control over the Budget?

Parliament has no say in the preparation of the budget.

Parliament has the power to increase expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund

Parliament has no power to impose a tax without the President's recommendation

Parliament has no power to increase a tax without the President's recommendation.

Q27. Which one of the following was the underground army of the African National Congress?

Umkhonto

KwaZulu

Xhosa

Ulundi

Q28. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from …….

The President of India

The Parliament of India

The Prime Minister of India

The Union Finance Minister of India

Q29. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme Court?

Disputes between the Centre and the States

Disputes between the States inter-se

Protection of the Fundamental Rights

Protection against the violation of the Constitution

Q30. Which one of the following countries and the purpose of the Peace Keeping Forces maintained during early 1990s is correctly matched?

Lebanon … For supervising a 1992 acord.

El Salvador … To deliver humanitarian aid

Mozambique … To supervise a referendum

Cyprus … To maintain peace between the two dominant ethnic groups in the country.

Q31. The abolition of IAS and IPS was recommended by which of the following committees/Commissions?

Dhebar Commission

Rajamannar Commission

Kher Commission

Kalekar Commission

Q32. Among the four pairs given below which one consists of a correct combination of dignitaries who became Vice Presidents after having held diplomatic posts like Ambassadors and High Commissions?

Dr.S.Radhakrishnan and G.S.Pathak

Dr.S.Radhakrishnan and V V Giri

Dr. Zakir Hussain and K R Narayanan

B D Jatti and K R Narayanan

Q33. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Neither the Finance Commission nor the Planning Commission is a constitutional body

The scope of the Finance Commission is limited to a review of the revenue segment of the budget while the Planning Commission takes an overall review embracing both capital and revenue requirements of the Sttes.

No one can be member of both the Finance Commission and the Planning Commission at the same time.

There is no overlapping of work and responsibility of the Finance Commission and those of the Planning Commission

Q34. Which two countries had a long running dispute over East Timor?

Japan and Russia

China and Philippines

Indonesia and Malaysia

Australia and Indonesia

Q35. Among the four political parties listed herein, which one wa the last to be formed?

The Conservative Party, UK

The Democratic Party, USA

The Republican Party, USA

Indian National Congress, India.

Q36. The "New Population Bomb" refers to

an increase in the population of the aged in the Third World

Rapidly growing urban population in the Third World

Large Scale distress migration in the Third World

Deluge of Soviet emigrants.

Q37. Several states in the North Eastern part of India were carved out by separating them from Assam. Which one of the following pairs is NOT among them?

Manipur and Meghalaya

Mizoram and Tripura

Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland

Manipur and Tripura

Q38. Which one of the following statements regarding the election of the President of India is correct?

A candidate securing the majority of votes is not automatically elected

The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction in any doubt or dispute arising in connection with the election of the President.

The Presidentiala election cannot take place when one or more State Assemblies stand dissolved because all the State Assemblies form part of the electoral college

The total value of the votes allotted to botrh Houses of Parliament is much more than the total value of the votes of all the States taken together.

Q39. Which of the following are Financial Committees of Parliament in India? (1) Public Accounts Committee (2) Estimates Committee (3) Committee on Public Undertakings

1 and 3

1 and 2

2 and 3 only

1,2 and 3

Q40. Which of the following political parties/organisations were established by Dr.B.R.Ambedkar? (1) Swaraj Party (2) Samaj Samata Sangh (3) All India Scheduled Castes Federation (4) The Independent Labour Party

1,2 and 4

1,3 and 4

2,3 and 4

1,2 and 3

Q41. The introduction of Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques Act 1994 was prompted by the increasing incidence of …..

Female foeticide

failure of contraceptive devices

spurious drugs being used for prenatal immunisation

unqualified persons diagnosing pregnancy in villages by primitive methods.

Q42. Which of the following statements regarding literacy in India are correct? (1) A person who can only read but cannot write is not defined literate. (2) Children below 5 years of age are not taken into consideration even if they are able to read and write. (3) For the purpose of Census, a person is deemed literate if he or she can read and write with understanding in any of the languages mentioned in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. (4) The fact that a district has attained hundred per cent literacy does not mean that the entire population in the district is literate.

1,3 and 4

2,3 and 4

1,2 and 3

1,2 and 4

Q43. Which one of the following has merged with Tanganyika to form the present Tanzania?

Zimbabwe

Zaire

Zanzibar

Zambia

Q44. Which one of the following is NOT in the State List under the Constitution of India?

Fisheries

Agriculture

Insurance

Betting and Gambling

Q45. If there is any disagreement between the Senate and the House of Representatives of USA, it is resolved by

The President

The Vice President

The Speaker

Conference Committee consisting of 3 to 9 members from each House.

Q46. Which one of the following is used by the International Court of Justice in disputes concerning riparian rights?

Geneva Agreement

Helsinki Agreement

Paris Agreement

Reykjavik Agreement

Q47. "Riparian Rights" relates to …..

security arrangement in the landed borders

sharing of intelligence informations

sharing of waters

sharing of forest resources in the borders.

Q48. Which one of the following correctly reflects the position of the Upper House of the State Legislature as compared to the position of the Upper House of the Parliament?

While one third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every second year, one fourth of the members of Legislative Council retire every eighteen months

There is no provision for a joint sitting of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council in the States for resolving deadlocks while there is such a provision in the case of the two Houses of Parliament.

While no Bill other than a Money Bill can originate in the State Legislative Council, no Bill can originate in Rajya Sabha

While Rajya Sabha has twelve nominated members, the State legislative Council has none.

Q49. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the Constitution of ….

USA

Ireland

Canada

Q50. "Tatarstan" is an area in …..

an area in Pakistan

an autonomous republics within Russia

an area in Bangladesh where Muslims of Myanmar have taken refuge

an oil rich territory of Turkey

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