WEBSITE AND DATABASE FOR SALE

Unfortunately, Mr. M. Subramanian, who maintained this website lost his battle to cancer and passed away in July, 2019. The database has over 50,000 questions. If you are interested in purchasing the website/database, please reach out using the form here.
Civil Service Exam 2024 | UPSC | IAS | TNPSC |Mock Tests

Welcome to Khub

 

Test No :23

Q1. In 305 BC which Mauryan ruler defeated the Macedonian general Seleucus Nicator and received the territories of Kabul and Balochistan?
Q2. Which famous German field marshal and master strategist was known as "The Great Silent One"?
Q3. Under which emperor was the first succesful Roman invasion and conquest of Britain carried out?
Q4. In which year was the British East India Co., granted a Royal Charter?
Q5. With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru Report? (1) Complete Independence for India (2) Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities (3) Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the constitution.
Q6. During WWII who were called the " Kamikaze Pilots "?
Q7. During the WWII what name was given to the secret project to develop the atomic bomb in the US?
Q8. Who among the following prevented the Arabs from entering into the South India?
Q9. Vardhana dynasty flourished during ......century AD
Q10. The Gupta Dynasty was destroyed by............
Q11. The Gupta's Age (Period) is known as the "Golden Age" because
Q12. The Gupta dynasty flourished during ...................
Q13. Kanishka followed which of the following religion?
Q14. The most famous King of the Kushana Dynasty was............
Q15. Chola dynasty was founded after overthrowing the ...........
Q16. "Kudavolai System" (a system of voting in pots) was in existence during the period of..................
Q17. Chola dynasty was founded by ...........
Q18. Who committed suicide after the vanquish by "Akbar's force"?
Q19. Who was Ibn Batuta?
Q20. The religion followed by Harsha was...............
Q21. When was the Insurance sector nationalized?
Q22. When was the General Insurance Sector nationalized?
Q23. When was a comprehensive Insurance Act passed in India?
Q24. When did Insurance business start in India?
Q25. When did India pledge its gold stock with the Bank of England?
Q26. The rate of interest charges by the Reserve Bank of India's lending loans to other banks is known as ……..
Q27. Which was the first committee appointed to recommend banking reforms and liberalisation process?
Q28. Which was the first bank to start ATM (Automated Teller Machine) services ?
Q29. Among the various nationalized banks which bank has its foundation day on 15th August?
Q30. State Bank of India started functioning from ……..
Q31. On the second instance of nationalization in 1980, how many banks were nationalized?
Q32. On the first instance how many banks were nationalized?
Q33. When did the nationalization of banks take place for the first time?
Q34. Who was the PM to nationalize Banks?
Q35. Imperial Bank (of the British) was functioning as the RBI for India and after nationalization, and RBI was separated, the Imperial Bank started functioning as …….
Q36. Which of the following was the first Indians owned bank to start in India?
Q37. Who was the first Indian Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
Q38. When from the Reserve Bank of India became fully Indian Government owned?
Q39. When was RBI started functioning?
Q40. Which country was the first to issue polymer currency?
Q41. TRAI regulates the functioning of which of the following services?
Q42. What is "Hawala" about which we often read and hear news?
Q43. Mututal Funds are regulated by
Q44. "Hawala" transactions are prohibited under .......
Q45. Which of the following controls the working of share market in India?
Q46. Interest at the rate of 3% is charged on an amount for first two years. For the next three years interest at 4% and after 5 years interest at 6% are charged. What will be the simple interest on Rs.2000 after ten years?
Q47. Four examiners can examine a certain number of answer papers in 10 days by working for 5 Hrs a day. For how many hours in a day would 2 examiners have to work in order to examine twice the number of answer papers in 20 days?
Q48. A man sold a book at a loss of 10%. Had he charged Rs.30/- more, he would have gained 12.5%. Find the cost of the book?
Q49. Ashok bought a bike at Rs.16000 and spent 10% of the cost on its repair. He earned a profit of Rs.4000 on its sale. What is the profit percentage?
Q50. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.22,500 at the end of four years is Rs.10,800.00. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate of interest at the end of two years?
Q51. The finger like structures present in the medulla are known as............
Q52. The glomerulus of a nephron consists of a network of.....................
Q53. Uriniferous tubules are differentiated into ..........parts.
Q54. Systems that help the human body to cooperate and function normally is/are
Q55. ............is the colour of the inner part of the brain.
Q56. Injury and damage of which of the following leads to death?
Q57. Which layer of the eye ball consists of the choroid layer, ciliary muscles and the lens?
Q58. Which of the following is/are essential for the growth of the body?
Q59. Which of the following regulates the functioning of the body?
Q60. Depending upon the ..................concentration, some soils are acidic and some are basic in nature.
Q61. The branch of science that deals with the organism and its environment is called as ......................
Q62. Bats find their ways by the reflection of ...........waves.
Q63. The peral oyster beds of the .............coast are known as "Lingha Pearls".
Q64. To protect human getting infected from the worms in the stomach of animals, pets should be administered..............
Q65. Majority of the diseases are caused by bacteria and viruses which are clinically known as ............
Q66. The administration of one or more type of vaccines, by injecting them into the body, to create the necessary resistance is called ....................immunisation.
Q67. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by ..........
Q68. Colour blindness, sickle cell anaemia, haemophilia and Turner's syndrome are known as .........diseases.
Q69. Carbohydrates and fats are called as ..................
Q70. Earthworm belongs to the order of ....................
Q71. Copper pyrites is concentrated by……..
Q72. Of the following which one is not a coinage metal?
Q73. What happens when fluorspar is added in the Hall's electrolytic process of aluminium?
Q74. Which one of the following is the gangue present in the haematite ore?
Q75. By what process Germanium is purified?
Q76. Pick the metal that does not react with steam?
Q77. What is the term for the process of extraction of pure metals from their ores?
Q78. Dissolution of sodium carbonate in water is an example of………… ....
Q79. With the increase in concentration, the rate of the reaction………….
Q80. Rusting of an iron is an example of………… reaction
Q81. Of the following, which one affects the rate of the reaction?
Q82. Of the following, which one is an example of photo chemical reaction?
Q83. A divalent element has 65.38 as its atomic mass. What is its equivalent mass?
Q84. The volume occupied by 1 mole of the compound at STP is…………..
Q85. What is the term for a substance which accepts one or more electrons from the other?
Q86. Pick the correct orbital of an electron with quantum number n=3 and l=0.
Q87. If the n value of an electron is 2, what would its l value?
Q88. Oxidation number of hydrogen in LiH is……….
Q89. The quantum number which gives the maximum number of electrons in a shell is …………….. Quantum number.
Q90. The direction of spin of an electron in an atomic orbital is explained by……………. Quantum number.
Q91. In an atom, no two electrons have the same set of four quantum numbers.How do we call this phenomenon?
Q92. Among the following, which one always has -1 oxidation state?
Q93. The oxidation number of hydrogen in metallic hydide is………….
Q94. If the electron is present in 1 s orbital, what would be the values of n and l?
Q95. If n=3, what can be the possible values of l?
Q96. What is the term for the plane at which electron density is zero?
Q97. Of the following, which one is called the "(n+1) rule?
Q98. Magnetic quantum number represents which of the following?
Q99. Azimuthal quantum number represents which of the following?
Q100. Of the following, which one represents the orientation of an atomic orbital in space?
Q101. Which quantum number represents the sub shell?
Q102. The main shell L has the principal quantum number as……
Q103. When the principal quantum number n is 3, the main shell is represented as…….
Q104. What was discovered by J J Thompson in 1897?
Q105. The shape of p-orbital is.........
Q106. Which of the following was discovered by Goldstein?
Q107. The shape of orbit generally is
Q108. The shape of s-orbital is.......
Q109. Which of the following metal is used in oil painting?
Q110. Electrons behave as……
Q111. The minimum frequency below which there is no emission of photo electrons are called
Q112. The measure of the tendency of a material to slow down light as it travels through it is called
Q113. The maximum value of stress within which a body regains its original state is called
Q114. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends on
Q115. The maximum kinetic energy of photo electrons is independent of
Q116. The maximum displacement of a vibrating body from its mean position is called
Q117. The mathematical expression for ohm’s law
Q118. The material required for the fission process to takes place is ..............
Q119. The mass of the proton is ............
Q120. The mass of an object is 10 kg. What is its weight on earth?
Q121. The mass of object A is 5 kg and B is 8 kg at rest. What is the momentum?
Q122. The mass of a steel block is 72 kg and volume is 9m3, what is its relative density.
Q123. The mass of a neutron is how many times the mass of an electron?
Q124. The mass and radius of earth are both changed to half. what is the value of gravitational acceleration?
Q125. The magnitude of the induced emf is equal to the rate of change of ...........
Q126. The magnitude of mechanical force acting on a current carrying conductor is proportional to ...........
Q127. The magnitude of force on current carrying conductor is the highest when the direction of current is
Q128. The magnification produced by a mirror is 2. The image formed by the mirror is
Q129. The magnetic flux through the coil changes from 120 wb to 240 wb, when magnet is moved towards it. If the change occurs in 0.5 s, the emf induced in the coil is
Q130. The magnetic flux linked with a coil of area 0.7 cm2 placed at right angle to a magnetic field of induction 0.3 tesla is
Q131. World's largest river based island is located on the river .........
Q132. Which of the following is termed "Horse latitudes"?
Q133. The winds blowing from subtropical high pressure regions to the equator is known as ..........
Q134. The doldrums belt is located near/on the ..............
Q135. Of the following states, which one receives the Sun rays first in the morning?
Q136. The oldest mountain are
Q137. Fall in temperature with increasing altitude is called as .......
Q138. In the atmosphere, the gas that absorbs ultraviolet rays is ..........
Q139. The winter rain in Chennai is caused by
Q140. The thickness of the troposphere in Summer ..........
Q141. Where did Buddha preach his first sermon?
Q142. What was the major impact of Vedic culture on Indian History?
Q143. The 'Brahmanas' are books that deal with...?
Q144. What is the major difference between 'varna' and 'jati'?
Q145. The content of Rig Veda is....
Q146. Upanishads are books on.....
Q147. What is "catsup" also known as.....
Q148. What was the Pakistani code name for the Kargil War?
Q149. Muslim League was founded in the year 1906 in the city of.....
Q150. Which Indian Mathematician worked as a clerk with the Madras Port Trust?
Q151. Which leaf is pictured on the national flag of Canada?
Q152. Who introduced cashew to India during 15th century?
Q153. The name of which animal means "river horse" in ancient Greek?
Q154. Who was the oldest person to be inaugurated as US President?
Q155. Which famous writer's grave stone carries the inscriptions 'Steel True, blade straight'?
Q156. Scotch Whiskey is made primarily from the malted form of which cereal crop?
Q157. The "Moru" people are an ethnic group of.....
Q158. Which colour is generally used to indicate "infectitious" disease?
Q159. Which US President died in Office during WWII?
Q160. The first steamship to cross the Atlantic Ocean from ...... to.... .
Q161. Which European traveller obtained and brought a large blue diamond, from India to France, which would later to be called as the "Hope" diamond?
Q162. Who is the oldest player to have won the Wimbledon men's singles championship?
Q163. Venera, Salyut, Vostok and Soyuz are names of ......
Q164. Which combat submarine was the first to sink an enemy ship?
Q165. Which city will host the 2016 Summer Olympics?
Q166. Which of the following is a symbol of Ireland?
Q167. Who wrote "Ben-Hur - a tale of the Christ"?
Q168. Volley Ball is played with ......players on each side.
Q169. In the olden vedic days' royal ritual "Ashwamedha" which animal was sacrificed?
Q170. Juneteenth Day in USA is observed for.....
Q171. According to the Bible, who interpreted the dreams of Pharaoh?
Q172. Which is the oldest existing (now in ruins) European Fort in India?
Q173. Who is the patron saint of musicians?
Q174. Who is known as "Grand father of Indian Tennis"?
Q175. In the question below is given three statements followed by three conclusions numbeFF0000 (1),(2) and (3) . You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.STATEMENTS: All calculators are boxes. All boxes are taps. Some taps are machines. CONCLUSIONS: (1) Some machines are boxes. (2) Some taps are calculators. (3) Some boxes are calculators.
Q176. In a certain code 'M' is written as '7'; 'K' is written as '$'; 'R' is written as '*'; 'Z' is written as '4'; 'W' is written as '2'; 'B' is written as '#'; 'D' is written as '%'; 'F' is written as '9' and 'J' is written as '5'. Then, how is KBZFJ be written in that code?
Q177. Fill the series: 240, ?, 120, 40, 10, 2
Q178. A report says .. The number of bus accidents is more than that of car accidents, the number of car accidents is less than the number of truck accidents, the number of truck accidents is less than the number of bus accidents. Which of the following conclusions do you draw from this report?
Q179. The following question is based on the five three digt numbers given below: 972 526 487 359 251. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?
Q180. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word: BRIGHT
Q181. Replace the highlighted part of the sentence with appropriate phrase given below: We went to the famous restaurant to eat and were served piped hot food.
Q182. Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), {C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and answer the question that follows: (A) It is therefore a contributing factor to the growth of landfills and waterway pollution, both of which are costly and energy-intensive to solve. (B) Making an effort to use those resources and avoid polystyrene ones can help to decrease your environmental impact. (C) Non-biodegradable essentially means that any polystyrene that makes its way into a landfill will stay there indefinitely, never breaking down and returning to earth. (D) Polystyrene, as a product, is very convenient to use, but it has some important effects we should consider when making choices as consumers. (E) While recycling polystyrene material can cushion the environmental blow of its use, alternatives are available that are created from renewable resources and biodegrade more readily. (F) For example, while polystyrene has some excellent uses and is technically recyclable, it is not a substance that biodegrades. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
Q183. Read the sentence given here and find out whether there is any error in it. If yes, in which part? If no error, your answer is 5. ....... Whenever clouds (1) / envelope those (2) / mountain peaks we expect rain (3) / within twentyfour hours. (4) / No error.
Q184. Rearrange the following six sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the question that follows: (A) This shows how politicians value little a common man's life. (B) However, the rash of tragedies has not apparently perturbed the Minister of Railways. (C) Despite opposition parties coming down heavily on her, the Minister of Railways remains undisturbed. (D) The Minister of Railways in question, already has fourteen train mishaps in his kitty in a year. (E) He should take a lession from the late Lal Bahadur Shastri who quit after a single accident. (F) Floating conspiracy theory is not going to improve the railways report card. Which of the sentences will be the FOURTH one after rearrangement?
Q185. Given below are six statements of which the first and the last .. (1) and (6) remains constant. The remaining four are given as (P), (Q),{R} and (S), which are not in the proper order. Arrange them in proper order and find out which order of sentences is correct: (1) A man who climbs a mountain faces several dangers. (P) A cylinder of oxygen can be very expensive (Q) The atmosphere at such a great height contains less oxygen than in the plains and therefore he may find it difficult to breathe (R) Yet another danger is the avalanches-huge mass of snow sliding down the mountain and the mountaineer may get swept off (S) This means that the mountaineer has to carry his own supply of oxygen in a cylinder (6) It is a proof of man's indomitable courage that in spite of all these dangers, he continues to climb the highest mountains in the world.
Q186. Read the following sentence carefully and find out whether there is/are any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No Error' the answer is (5) (ignore errors of punctuation, if any) .......They were hoping (1) / to reach of time (2) / for the lecture (3) / but they were late. (4) / No error (5).
Q187. Replace the highlighted part of the sentence with appropriate phrase given below: In order to earning decent living we need to have a good job which pays a substantial amount of money.
Q188. In 2016, the Central Government introduced the "Pradhan Mantri Ujwala Yojana". It is aimed at .................
Q189. "Sethu Bharatam" scheme announed by the Central Government in 2016, relates to ................
Q190. In July 2016, K.P.Oli resigned as the PM of .................
Q191. .........are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.
Q192. With javadoc. Which of the following denotes a javadoc comment?
Q193. ......command can be used to erase a database or any other file in FoxPro.
Q194. Creating, editing, formatting, storing, retrieving and printing a text document is known as .......
Q195. In the case of a alphabetic item, the picture clause may contain only the symbol...
Q196. The extent to which the software can continue to operate correctly despite the introduction of invalid input is called as ....
Q197. When the pointer is hand shaped, it indicates.....
Q198. Periodically adding, changing and deleting the records is known as
Q199. Find the odd one out of the following ?
Q200. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as ...

 

 

03: 00: 00

 

Exit