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Test No :41

Q1. What was "Mansabdari" during the Mughal period?
Q2. What was the main motive of Ghazni Mohammad's frequent attack on India?
Q3. Arrange the following rulers of Delhi in the chronological order: a) Razia b)Balban c)Iltumish d)Nasiruddin
Q4. Civil Disobedience movement followed which of the following events?
Q5. Accession to the Sultan period throne was generally through .......
Q6. Which political party was in power in United Kingdom when India became independent?
Q7. Which factor contributed most to the success of the British against other European traders in India?
Q8. Arrange the following political events in Gandhiji's life in the chronological order: a) Vykom Satyagraha b) Champaran Satyagraha c) Loin Cloth Adoption d) Bardoli Satyagraha
Q9. Who of the following Liberal who played an important part in drafting Congress constitutional documents such as the Lucknow Pact of 1916, and the Nehru Report 1927, and continued this role in drawing up independent India's constitution as well.
Q10. Among the following nationalists who spoke of self government for India as the fulfillment of the ancient life of India under modern conditions andl the final fulfillment of the Vedantic ideal in politics.
Q11. Till the beginning of the Gupta period, the Chakravarti ideal was connec ted with the performance of vedic sacrifices but now it was raised to be the political ideal of the age. What is the pointer?
Q12. The most important development during the Gupta period with regard to the land grants during Ancient India was.......
Q13. The law givers of Gupta period mention in detail the privileged position of the guilds.Point out which one of the following is not pertinent?
Q14. Asthakuladhikarana' was the rural board under the Guptas, and it was constituted by which of the following?
Q15. Adhisthan Adhi Karana' was the municipa board during Gupta period and it constituted four members. Of the following which was not one of them?
Q16. Among the following features of Buddhism which one is NOT correct
Q17. Orthodox Hindus believe that there are six "astika" systems of Hindu philosophy and of them the oldest is........
Q18. Brahma's chief wife is the goddess of wisdom, speech, music, the deviser of Sanskrit and the Minerwa of Hinduism. To which goddess in Hinduism these attributes are related?
Q19. Of all the birds, the one that carries the three greatest secrets: Secret of immortality - which has earned it the name of "Chiranjiva"- long lived; secret of the origin of things for it was the one bird present at creation; and it has the secret of hell since it dwelt for many aeons in the infernal reals. The reference is for which of the following?
Q20. What characterizes the Iron age burials in the South?
Q21. The tenure of Lok Sabha is ..years
Q22. What is the minimum age requirement for a Lok Sabha Member?
Q23. By which amendment to the Constitution, the strength of Lok Sabha has been pegged to 545 seats, for 25 years?
Q24. By which amendment of the Constitution, the tenure of the Lok Sabha was restored back to 5 years?
Q25. Who was the Prime Minister responsible for the 42nd Amendment and also to extend the tenure of the Lok Sabha?
Q26. By which amendment of the Constitution, the Lok Sabha's tenure was extended to 6 years?
Q27. In which year, the only occasion in the history of Indian Parliament, the Lok Sabha's life was extended from 5 to 6 years?
Q28. Which amendment, not a well received one, was often termed as "Mini Constitution". Which one is that?
Q29. Which amendment of the constitution is often referred to as "Anti Defection Bill"?
Q30. Which amendment to the constitution prevents a defected member from becoming a Minister?
Q31. Under which amendment, the upper limit of council of ministers has been pegged to 15% of the strength of Sabhas and assemblies?
Q32. Under which amendment of the Bill the voting age has been brought down to 18 from 21?
Q33. Under which amendment of the Bill the strength of Lok Sabha has been raised from 525 to 545?
Q34. Under which amendment of the Constitution, the privileges to the princes were withdrawn?
Q35. On which subject, the first amendment of the constitution was made?
Q36. In which year the first amendment to the constitution took place?
Q37. Powers and subjects to be dealt by the Centre and States are given in of the constitution.
Q38. Guidelines for administration of Municipalities is given in of the constitution.
Q39. Disqualification of members of the parliament on the grounds of defection is dealt in of the Constitution.
Q40. Guidelines regarding salary and allowances for Constitutional Posts are given in ..of the Constitution.
Q41. "India has achieved national food security, but has not ensured household food security". What does it mean?
Q42. TRYSEM was a scheme related to .................
Q43. Centralised planning was first adopted in which country's economy?
Q44. Expand OECD.
Q45. According to the Chakravarthy Committee, one of the principal causes affecting price stability in India is .........
Q46. When a bus started from the first stop, the number of male passengers to the number of passengers was 3:1. At the first stop, 16 passengers got down and 6 more female passengers got in. The ratio of the male to female passengers now became 2:1. What was the total number of passengers in the bus when it started from the first stop?
Q47. By selling 240 apples a fruit seller gains the cost price of 20 apples. What is his gain percentage?
Q48. A milk man has 75 litres milk in one can and 45 litres in another. The maximum capacity of container which measure milk of either container exact number of times is:
Q49. A train of 900 m long is running at 90 Km/Hr. If it crosses a tunnel in 1 minute, find out the length of the tunnel?
Q50. An outlet empties 2/7 of a tank in 6 minutes. To empty the remaining content it would further take......
Q51. Functional units of genes are ............
Q52. Enzymes that can cut DNA at specific places are..................
Q53. ...................is NOT a tissue culture medium
Q54. Anand Mohan Chakrabarty is the first one to develop a strain of ................
Q55. ...................mechanism involves stabilizing an optimum level of water, minerals of body fluids and thermal regulation.
Q56. Vitamin E remains as ..............
Q57. The symptoms of arrhythmias include.........
Q58. Each gram of carbohydrate is capable of producing energy equivalent of ..............
Q59. Through which of the following processes, energy metabolism takes place?
Q60. The blood clotting takes place with the aid of ...................
Q61. Which of the following is not aused by CAD?
Q62. Part of the nephron which acts as a biological filter is ...............
Q63. Which of these is NOT true about a pacemaker?
Q64. Center of several reflexes is ..................
Q65. Increase in the blood glucose level due to fat catabolism results in ......................
Q66. The solution from which water gets lost is called..................
Q67. .....................is NOT an antibacterial protein.
Q68. What is an AICD (Automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator)?
Q69. What is a 'biventricular' pacemaker?
Q70. Which of these is NOT true?
Q71. Consider the following statements about acetylene: (1) It is used in welding industry. (2) It is a raw material for preparing plastics. (3) It is easily obtained by mixing silicon carbide and water. Of these statements ....
Q72. Match the following common names of chemicals (in alphabets) with their actual chemical terminology (in numbers): (A) Blue Vitriol (B) Epsom Salt {C} Baking Soda (D) Caustic Soda. ..... (1) Sodium Bicarbonate (2) Sodium Hydroxide (3) Magnesium Sulphate (4) Copper Sulphate
Q73. Which one of the following is an active component of oil of clove?
Q74. The most reactive among the halogens is .....
Q75. Which one of the following is paramagnetic in nature?
Q76. Which one of the following has the highest fuel value?
Q77. Which one of the following is used as an anti-freeze for the automobile engines?
Q78. Physico-chemical characteristics of water in water sources undergo changes due to ....
Q79. Which one of the following elements is alloyed with iron to produce steel which can resist high temperatures and alo have high hardness and abrasion resistance?
Q80. Which one of the following fuels causes minimum environmental pollution?
Q81. Which one of the following can be used to confirm whether drinking water contains a gamma emitting isotope or not?
Q82. Which one of the following is a mixed fertilizer?
Q83. The chemical used as a 'fixer' in photography is
Q84. "The final Agent Orange raid in Vietnam took place in 1970: .... Areas have begun to bloom again. But 19 years after the war's end, it seems plain that Agent Orange is killing and maiming human beings, something it never intended to do. The apparent toxic fallout from those clouds....is a crop of human miseries including cancers, miscarriages and birth defects -- that may persist for decades." -- The offensive substance referred to in this quotation is .....
Q85. Which radioactive pollutant has drawn the attention of the public, due to its occurrence in the building material?
Q86. Which one of the following is in the correct sequential order in which these appeared under stimulated primitive earth condition?
Q87. If a gas is compressed to half of its original volume at 27C to what temperature should it be heated to make it occupt its original volume?
Q88. The main constituents of pearl are .....
Q89. Monozite is an ore .....
Q90. Galvanised iron sheets are protected from rusting due to the presence of a layer of ....
Q91. Water is a good solvent of ionic salts because
Q92. Which one of the following chemicals is responsible for the depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere?
Q93. In which type of rocks are metals like gold and copper mostly found?
Q94. Gypsum is added to cement clinker to
Q95. Of the following, which one is ana element?
Q96. Elements having atomic number higher than '92' in the periodic table are known as .....
Q97. Which of the following metals is extracted from the Monazite sand found in plenty in India?
Q98. Soap was never actually discovered but instead gradually evolved from crude mixtures of alkaline and fatty material. Up to 1800, soap was believed to be a mechanical mixture of fat and alkali, then Chereul, a French chemist showed that soap formation, was actually a achemical reaction. Which one of the following follows from the above statement?
Q99. Water which contains soluble salts of calcium and magnesium is known as
Q100. Paraffin is a by-product of ...
Q101. Assertion (A): Activated charcoal is used for decolourising sugar solution. Reason {R}: Activated charcoal absorbs the impurities on its surface.
Q102. Sparkling red colour after the blast of fire crackers is due to the presence of .....
Q103. The highest grade of coal, whose surface is hining and has the highest calorific value is
Q104. Which of the following chemicals in automobile exhaust can cause cancer?
Q105. Match the following organic acids (in alphabets) with their sources (in numbers) : (A) Lactic Acid (B) Acetic Acid {C} Citric Acid (D) Butyric Acid ..... (1) Lemon (2) Rancid Butter (3) Milk (4) Vinegar (5) Wine
Q106. The drugs -- caffeine, tannin and nicotine are
Q107. Oridinary dry air consists of the following: (1) Nitrogen (2) Oxygen (3) Argon (4) Carbon dioxide. What is the decreasing sequence of these in percentage?
Q108. Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral?
Q109. Assertion (A): A dry cell cannot be recharged. Reason {R}: The chemical reaction in a dry cell is reversible.
Q110. Assertion (A): Detergents can easily remove oil and dirt from soiled garments. Reason {R} : Detergents increase the surface tension of water.
Q111. If a mirror has a focal length of + 10 cm then it is a
Q112. If a Microwave oven has the rating of 1100 W, 220 V marked on it, what should be minimum rating of the fuse put by the electrician in the part of the circuit?
Q113. If a magnet is cut into two pieces of equal length
Q114. If a greased needle is gently placed on the surface of water, it
Q115. If a convex lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image at 35 cm, the distance of the object is
Q116. If a camphor is placed on the surface of water the surface tension
Q117. If a body reflects all the colours that fallon it in what colour does it appear?
Q118. Hydrogen atom does not have
Q119. How will you find the magnitude of the +ve charge?
Q120. How will you convert galvanometer into voltmeter?
Q121. How will you convert galvanometer into ammeter?
Q122. How will you connect fuse wire with an electric device?
Q123. How to increase induced current in a coil?
Q124. How to locate pole star while observing the constellations?
Q125. How to demagnetize a permanent magnet?
Q126. How to demagnetize a permanent magnet?
Q127. How to change the focal length of an eye1ens?
Q128. How much temperature is required for nuclear fission reaction to take place?
Q129. How much voltage should be applied to a 50W resistance, to produce 1000J of heat in 10 seconds?
Q130. How much solar energy is received by each square meter of upper atmosphere per second?
Q131. The deltas of Cauvery, Godavari, Krishna and Mahanadi form the ..
Q132. The easterly depressions develop over which of the following regions?
Q133. Isohels are cartographic lines connecting places having.....
Q134. Which of the following planets has 8 satellites?
Q135. Keoladeo Bird Sanctuary is located at .....
Q136. Where is Asia's biggest (largest) telescope located?
Q137. SHAR centre is located in ....
Q138. Through which of the following countries does Tropic of Capricorn pass through?
Q139. The farthest planet from the Sun is....
Q140. A day of 24 hours occur on 21st june every year in the ....
Q141. Which bank is set to raise the country's largest ever issue by the end of the current financial year in Mar 2008? The bank will raise ' 16,736 crore through a rights issue. This will dwarf the ' 11, 500 crore issue that Reliance Power plans to raise through the largest ever public issue, which closed on January 18?
Q142. Which of the following is not correct about the Golden Globe Awards?
Q143. Prern Kumar Dhumal is the chief minister of .......... .
Q144. Who among the following has said that compulsory military service could solve the human resources crisis in the Indian Army?
Q145. India has won the third Test match in Perth, defeating Australia by ..........
Q146. Viren Rasquinha, an international player, has announced his retirement from ........... .
Q147. Alvaro Colorn was sworn in as the first leftist president of ........... in more than 50 years, promising to tight poverty in a nation where half the people live on less than $1 a day.
Q148. Which country has banned the import and exhibition of The Kite Runner, a film about the troubled friendship of two Afghan boys. on the grounds that it could incite violence? The Kite Runner is based on the 2003 best selling novel by US-based Afghan author Khaled Hosseini.
Q149. Name the J&K education minister and Pradesh Congress Committee chief who has resigned over corruption charges involving a member of his staff after the issue rocked the state assembly.
Q150. With an eye on the polls later this year, the Raman Singh government in Chattisgarh launched a scheme to provide rice at ............. per kg to everyone below the poverty line.
Q151. Which state was recently in news for the breaking out of bird flu?
Q152. India and China on Jan 14 raised the target for two-way trade between the two Asian giants by 50%, pegging it at $60 billion for ........... .
Q153. Which of the following statements are true about the recommendations of the Rangarajan Committee?
A. In its final report given to finance minister P. Chidambaram, the committee on financial inclusion, headed by the chairman of Prime Minister's Economic Advisory Council, C Rangarajan, suggested that each branch of PSU banks should open 250 new accounts every year.
B. Chidambaram said it meant that 12.5 million accounts would be opened each year, given the current strength of 50,000 branches in the country
C. The committee also recommended that individuals should be appointed as banking correspondents
D. Currently, only non-government organisations and micro-finance institutions could be appointed as banking correspondents as per RBI norms.
Q154. Which magazine has named Pakistan the world's most dangerous place', saying it deserved the title, especially after Benazir's killing?
Q155. Former chiefminister of Meghalaya and Congress leader who has resigned from the the State Assembly and the Congress party.
Q156. The United States capitalised on Jelena Jancovic's injury misfortune to beat ........... 2-1 in the final and win its fourth Hopman Cup in six years in Perth.
Q157. The Department of Public Enterprises (DPE) has asked the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) to invest their surplus money only in mutual funds where the collective holdings of government and its institutions exceed ................ .
Q158. Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission Montek Singh Ahluwalia has said the government would increase the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) allocation for health to ........... from the present 1 per cent in the XI Five-Year Plan.
Q159. The Union Cabinet has given its nod for the continuation of the Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana (RGGVY) in the XI Plan with the promise of providing electricity to all rural households by the end of this Five-Year Plan in .............. .
Q160. Name the President who, emboldened by his success in a hostage release, took the side of leftist rebels in neighbouring Colombia's decades-old civil conflict, calling the guerrillas "true armies" and asking the international community to stop classifying them as terrorists.
Q161. The government has ordered a CBI inquiry into the charges of fraud and corruption in five health projects in the country supported by the World Bank. Which of the following are the projects covered by the World Bank report?
A. $114-m Malaria Control Project
B. $82.1-m Orissa Health Project
C. $54- m Food and Drug Capacity Building Project
D. $193.7-m Second National HIV/AIDSControl Project
E. $124.8 m Tuberculosis Control Project
Q162. Bangaladeshi author Taslima Nasreen has been chosen for the prestigious .............. award in recognition of her writing on women's rights.
Q163. Name the South African police chief who has resigned as President of Interpol to fight corruption allegation.
Q164. India's first international potato convention was held in ........... .
Q165. The former British prime minister ........... is to join Wall Street bank JP Morgan as a part-time advisor. He became international envoy to the Middle East after standing down following a decade as premier in June last year. He will advise the financial services giant on political and strategic issues.
Q166. Which state govt has declared 2008 as the "Year of Education" in the state?
Q167. Which of the following has chosen to withdraw from the One Laptop Per Child education computer organisation?
Q168. Power Grid Corporation of lndia has received an in-principle approval for maintenance and expansion of power grids in ........... .
Q169. Name the two India-born British entrepreneurs who have been named among the 100 most powerful people in the UK business in a list compiled by the Times in London.
Q170. Which is the only railway system in India to have 'Standard Gauge' railway track?
Q171. Delhi Gate' and 'Lahore Gate' are the important features of which of these forts?
Q172. Which batsman has hit the most boundaries - 32 - in a single ODI cricket match?
Q173. The world's first nuclear reactor was named.................
Q174. Who is the oldest goal scorer in World Cup football?
Q175. If ABRA-CADABRA is 1, 2, 9, 1 -3, 1, 4, 1, 2, 9, 1, HOCUS-POCUS will be ...
Q176. The letters L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T in their order are substituted by nine integers 1 to 9 but not in that order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What is the integer assigned to N?
Q177. Examine the following STATEMENTS: (1) Either A and B are of the same age or A is older than B. (2) Either C and D are of the same age or D is older than C. (3) B is older than C. Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
Q178. In the question below is given three statements followed by three conclusions numbeFF0000 (1), (2) and . You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.STATEMENTS: Some hotels are towns. All towns are villages. All villages are cities. CONCLUSIONS: (1) Some cities are hotels. (2) Some village are hotels. (3) All villages are towns.
Q179. Which of the following can be inferFF0000 from the statement that "Either John is stupid or John is lazy"? (1) John is lazy/therefore, John is not stupid. (2) John is not lazy/therefore, John is stupid. (3) John is not stupid/therefore, John is lazy. (4) John is stupid/therefore, John is not lazy. Choose the correct answer from the codes given.
Q180. Read the following sentence carefully and find out whether there is/are any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No Error' the answer is (5). (ignore errors of punctuation, if any) ....While I am (1) / doing the house works (2) / I like to listen to (3) / music on the radio. (4) / No error (5).
Q181. Fill the blank with proper collective noun: "e;We saw a ...........lions in the zoo"e;
Q182. Pick out the most effective word given, and fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete: "e; Computers are useless ........you know how to use them"e;.
Q183. Pick out the most effective word given, and fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete: "e; We need more information before we can reach a ............."e;
Q184. Read the following sentence carefully and find out whether there is/are any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No Error' the answer is (5). (ignore errors of punctuation, if any) ...... She is pretending (1) / to be sick (2) / because she don't (3) / want to study. (4) / No error. (5)
Q185. Find the meaning for PANACEA
Q186. To set one's face against -- means
Q187. Read the following sentence carefully and find out whether there is/are any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No Error' the answer is (5). (ignore errors of punctuation, if any) ..... My best friend (1) / left the country. (2) / I hope to hearing (3) / from her again soon. (4) / No error (5)
Q188. The 55th National Sports meet was held at ............in July 2015
Q189. Who won the 2015 Wimbledon Men's Singles Championship?
Q190. Who won the 2015 Wimbledon Women's Singles Championship?
Q191. Of the following which one is NOT an operating system?
Q192. Which of the memory is fastest?
Q193. The primitive steps involved in the development of an algorithms are .........
Q194. Which port connects special types of music instruments to sound cards?
Q195. The types of users in UNIX are ...
Q196. Pop-ups are a form of .......on the WWW.
Q197. The following operators are......operators +, =, >, >=, <, <=, < >
Q198. .......of the following is an active cell in Excel.
Q199. The hierarchical database organizes data in a/an...
Q200. Expand FTP

 

 

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