Civil Service Exam 2019 | UPSC | IAS | TNPSC |Mock Tests

Welcome to Khub

 

Test No :40

Q1. Among the following what was not the aim of Servant's of India Society launched by Gohale in 1905?
Q2. Who among the following is credited with bringing sanskritic culture true to the South?
Q3. Pick out the place where regional militant nationalism was not based?
Q4. Of the following Acts enacted by the British, which one was a short lived?
Q5. What was the service undertaken by the Jyotiba Phule's Satyashodak Samaj during the later 19th century?
Q6. Under the leadership of Dr.Ambedkar, the untouchable "Mahars" launched an autonomous movement with certain demands. Which of the following was not one of them?
Q7. Which of the following quote is correctly matched? A)Give me blood, I will give you freedom - Nehruji B)Karenge ya marenge - Nethaji C)Swaraj is birthright and I shall have it - Tilak D)A new star rises, the star of freedom in the East - Gandhiji
Q8. British appointed the Hunter Commission to probe into......
Q9. Arrange the following events in the correct chronological order: a)Permanent Settlement b)doctrine of lapse c)partition of Bengal d)subsidiary alliance
Q10. What was the main reason for the partition of Bengal?
Q11. Among the following who gave the maximum resistance to the British?
Q12. For what reason the 'Din ilahi' of Akbar met with failure?
Q13. Which of the following is not directly related with the growth of cave art?
Q14. Mark the Kushan dynasty ruler from the following?
Q15. Mark the unrelated feature of the Mauryan Dynasty? A)wide spread education b)largest empire of its time c)use of gold, silver and copper coins d)provincial administration
Q16. In which year the Quit India Movement was organised?
Q17. Which of the following gave the permission for the Britishers to establish their company in India?
Q18. Who introduced the Indian Civil Service?
Q19. What was the aim of the Red Shirt movement?
Q20. The earnings of medieval period kings was mostly from....
Q21. Rajya Sabha was convened for the first time on.
Q22. Who was the only non resident member of Lok Sabha?
Q23. How many states were there at the time of the first General Elections?
Q24. Rae Bareily in UP is known for Nehru Gandhi family contesting the Lok Sabha elections. Who was the first, from the Nehru family, to contest from this Lok Sabha constituency>
Q25. Who holds the record for getting elected to the Lok Sabha from SIX DIFFERENT CONSTITUENCIES that too for a record 9 terms?
Q26. As of 2009 elections, which is the largest constituency in the country?
Q27. How many nominated members are there for the Lok Sabha?
Q28. Nominated Lok Sabha members are selected from the community of.
Q29. Delhi, the Union Territory and Special State, has Lok Sabha seats?
Q30. How many states have only one Lok Sabha seat (other than Union Territories)?
Q31. Which state of India has the largest number of Lok Sabha seats?
Q32. Who is the only person to officiate twice as Lok Sabha Speaker in two different spells?
Q33. Who is the only Communist leader to becomer the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
Q34. Which speaker of Lok Speaker, among the following, died of a helicopter crash?
Q35. Who was the Only speaker to become President?
Q36. Who holds the record of being the longest serving Lok Sabha Speaker?
Q37. When was the first Lok Sabha convened?
Q38. Who was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha?
Q39. Who is empowered to dissolve the Lok Sabha?
Q40. On how many occasions the tenure of 5 years of Lok Sabha was extended?
Q41. When development in economy takes place the share of tertiary sector in National Income .................
Q42. National Income is also known as .........
Q43. The rationale given in the I Plan for state intervention in the industrial sector was that...............
Q44. "Usual Status" (US) unemployment is calculated with reference to a period of ..............
Q45. Demand for complementary goods is known as .........
Q46. Two numbers are less than a third number by 30% and 37% respectively. How much percent is the second number less than first?
Q47. A 360 meter long train crosses a pole in 80 seconds. What is the speed of the train?
Q48. Mr Qadir earns an annual income of Rs.12.75 lakhs. Every month he saves 20% of his monthly income. 15% of the remaining amount of his monthly income he spends in paying his loan instalment. He spends 24% of his monthly income in paying various bills and spends 42% of his monthly income on various other household expenses. The remaining amount of his monthly income he sends to his family.What is the total of the monthly amount Mr. Qadir sends to his family and the monthly amount he spends on various household expenses?
Q49. If a 400 m long train crosses a platform of same length in 40 seconds, then the speed of the train is....
Q50. What is the length of a bridge in which a train of 100 m long and travelling at 48 Km/Hr crosses it in 15 seconds?
Q51. A woman with normal vision, but whose father was colour blind, marries a colour blind man. Suppose that the fourth child of this couple was a boy, this boy ......
Q52. Moulting hormone is secreted by ...........
Q53. Which of the following is a transparent tissue?
Q54. A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field. Which one of the following groups of bones are directly contributing in this movement?
Q55. During an allergic reaction, the binding of antigens to IgE antibodies initiates a response, in which a chemical causes the dilation of blood vessels and a host of other physiological changes. Such chemicals are:
Q56. In relation to heart, which of these statement is true?
Q57. What are the main components of the heart?
Q58. RNA contains ..................
Q59. The clover leaf model of tRNA was suggested by ...............
Q60. The amount of tRNA in the cell is about .................
Q61. The other name for the Trna IS ..............
Q62. The building block of DNA is ................
Q63. What is the normal heart rate (number of beats per minute)?
Q64. The genome of virus is made up of ...............
Q65. Tetraploid corn contains more ..............
Q66. Genes are made up of ................
Q67. The term arrhythmia means out of normal rhythm and means?
Q68. Diploidy condition is seen in
Q69. Point mutation brings change in the
Q70. The first man made cereal is .................
Q71. Assertion (A): Cellulose is used in making shatter proof glass. Reason (R}: Polysaccharides are not soluble in water.
Q72. Consider the following statements: (1) Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) is liquefied under extremely cold temperaturs and high pressure to facilitate storage or transportation in specially designed vessels. (2) First LNG terminal in India was built in Hassan. (3) Natural Gas Liquids (NGL) are separated from LPG and these include ethane, propane, butane and natural gasoline. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q73. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given substances in the decreasing order of their densities?
Q74. Assertion (A): The main constituent of the Liquefied Petroleum Gas is Methane. Reason {R} : Methane can be used directly for burning in homes and factories where it can be supplied through pipelines.
Q75. Consider the following statements: (1) During the process of Osmosis, the solvent travesls from the concentrated solution to the dilute solution. (2) In the Reverse Osmosis, external pressure is applied to the dilute solution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q76. Consider the following statements: (1) Anhydrous sodium carbonate is commonly known as baking soda. (2) Baking Soda is used in fire extinguishers. (3) Bleaching Powder is manufactured in Hasenclever plant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q77. Consider the following statements: (1) Baking Soda is used in fire extinguishers. (2) Quicklime is used in the manufacture of glass. (3) Gypsum is used in the manufacture of Plaster of Paris. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q78. Match the following Fuel Gases (in alphabets) with their major constituents (in numbers): (A) CNG (B) Coal Gas (C} LPG (D) Water Gas ..... (1) Carbon monoxide, Hydrogen. (2) Butane, Propane. (3) Methane, Ethane. (4) Hydrogen, Methane, Carbon Monoxide.
Q79. Standard 18 carat gold sold in the market contains.
Q80. Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks?
Q81. With reference to ionic compounds, consider the following statements: (1) Ionic compounds are insoluble in alcohol. (2) Ionic compounds in the solid state are good conductors of electricity. Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q82. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Q83. With reference to our country, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
Q84. Regarding the atom of a chemical element, the magnetic quantum number refers to.
Q85. Assertion (A): In the periodic table of chemical elements, electron affinity is always found to increase from top to bottom in a group. Reason {R}: In a group, the atomic radii generally increase from top to bottom.
Q86. Consider the following statements: (1) Molasses is a by product of sugar production process. (2) Bagasse obtained in the sugar mills is used as a fuel in the boilers to generate steam for the sugar factories. (3) Sugar can only be produced from sugarcane as the raw material. Which of these statements are correct?
Q87. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q88. Consider the following statements: The purpose of adding sodium sulphate and sodium silicate to the detergent in a washing powder is (1) To keep the washing powder dry (2) To maintain the alkalinity of the powder. Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q89. Which one of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog?
Q90. Assertion (A): Synthetic detergents can lather well in hard water. Reson (R}: Synthetic detergents form soluble calcium and magnesium salts with hard water.
Q91. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in increasing order of molecular weights of the hydrocarbons?
Q92. Consider the following statements with reference to the Periodic Table of Chemical elements: (1) Ionisation potential gradually decreases along a period. (2) In a group of elements, electron affinity decreases as the atomic weight increases. (3) In a given period, electronegativity decreases as the atomic number increases. Which of these statements is/are correct?
Q93. An aqueous solution of copper sulphate is acidic in nature because the salt undergoes
Q94. A radioactive substance has a half life of four months. Three fourths of the substance would decay in ....
Q95. Assertion (A): A chemical reaction becomes faster at higher temperatures. Reason {R}: At higher temperatures, molecular motion becomes more rapid.
Q96. Which one of the following is NOT radioactive?
Q97. Most of the explosions in mines occur due to the mixing of ....
Q98. Match the following in List I (in alphabets) with List II (in numbers): (A) German Silver (B) Solder (C} Bleaching Powder (D) Hypo ..... (1) Tin (2) Nickel (3) Sodium (4) Chlorine.
Q99. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/s of Indian Coal? (1) High ash content (2) Low sulphur content and (3) Low ash fusion temperature.
Q100. Aluminium surfaces are often ' anodized '. This means the deposition of a layer of .....
Q101. Assertion (A): Large cold storage plants use ammonia as refrigerant while domestic refrigerators use chlorofluorocarbons. Reason {R}: Ammonia can be liquified at ambient temperatures at low pressures.
Q102. Which one of the following materials is very hard and very ductile?
Q103. Assertion (A): To dilute sulphuric acid, the acid is added to water and not water to the acid. Reason (R}: Specific heat of water is quite large.
Q104. Match the following Naturally Occurring substances (in alphabets) with the elements (in numbers): (A) Diamond (B) Marble (C} Sand (D) Ruby ..... (1) Calcium (2) Silicon (3) Aluminium (4) Carbon
Q105. The water pollution in river is measured by the dissolved amount of ...
Q106. Match the following chemicals (in alphabets) with their area of utilization (in numbers): (A) Potassium Bromide (B) Potassium Nitrate {C} Potassium Sulphate (D) Monopotassium tartarate ..... (1) Fertilizer (2) Photography (3) Bakery (4) Gunpowder.
Q107. Which of the following elements is essential for the constrution of nuclear reactors?
Q108. Consider the following statements: Coke is one of the materials of the charge added to blast furnace for the production of steel/iron. Its function is to ...(1) Act as a reducing agent. (2) Remove Silica associated with the Iron ore. (3) Function as fuel to supply heat. (4) Act as an oxidising agent. Of these statements ..... are correct
Q109. Assertion (A): Phenyl is used as a household germicide. Reason {R}: Phenyl is a phenol derivative and phenol is an effective germicide.
Q110. Assertion {A}: Sodium metal is stored under Kerosene. Reason {R}: Metallic sodium melts when exposed to air.
Q111. If the sum of all the forces acting on a moving object is zero, the object will
Q112. If the mass of one man is 60 kg on the earth, what is his mass on moon?
Q113. If the scattered light has a wavelength different from that of incident light it is called
Q114. If the mass of an object is increased by 4 times and velocity is halved, the K.E will be
Q115. If the K.E of a body becomes four times of its initial value, then the new momentum will be
Q116. If the glasses or contact lens prescribed for a person has a positive power, then he is suffering from
Q117. If the frequency of light wave is 5 1014 Hz and its wave length in a medium is 400 Å. What is the refractive index of the material medium?
Q118. If the density of blood is 1040 kgm3 then the minimum pressure required to force blood from the heart to top of the head for a vertical distance of 0.5 cm is
Q119. If the current flowing through an electric circuit is doubled then heat produced by the current in the electric circuit is the initial value.
Q120. If the current flowing through a filament lamp of power 60W is lA, find its resistance.
Q121. If the area of cross-section of a conductor is doubled, what is its resistance ?
Q122. If no external force acts on the object, what will be the acceleration?
Q123. If mass of an object is m, velocity v, acceleration a and applied force is f and momentum is p .......
Q124. If four resistors each of value 10W are connected in series, then the total resistance of the circuit is
Q125. If density of air is 1.3 kg/m3 and coefficient of viscosity is 187 107 NSm2 then the vertical velocity for air flowing through a tube of 102 m radius is
Q126. If an object is placed in front of a convex lens at a distance less than the focal length, then the image formed is ......... and .........
Q127. If an object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from the optic centre of a convex lens, of focal length 12 cm, the nature of the image is
Q128. If an incident ray makes an angle of 16 degree with the normal to the plane mirror, then the angle, between .the reflected ray and the. plane mirror is
Q129. If an electric kettle is marked 220 V. 1 kw, the maximum current at which it can be safely operated is
Q130. If a mirror has a focal length of +10cm then it is a
Q131. Forests in the Western parts of the foothills of Himalays are known as .................
Q132. The wind blowing from "Southern Hemisphere" is known as...
Q133. Earth rotates on its own axis at an angle of ......
Q134. Eastern Coastal region gets rainfalls due to....
Q135. From the plains, as you go higher and higher, the temperature....
Q136. Rainy Season in India is from ........to............ .
Q137. Collection of geographical data by visiting to various places of interest is called as ......
Q138. Which state of India has the highest population?
Q139. ..........is moderately populated because of arid nature.
Q140. Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh are also known as ....
Q141. What was the nickname for the Soviet ANG OZ hydrogen bomb, the largest, most powerful nuclear weapon ever detonated?
Q142. Which river is named after a mythical nation of female warriors?
Q143. Who wrote the book "The story of the Integration of Indian States"?
Q144. Where is the headquarters of the Organisation of Islamic Conference?
Q145. One of the Pakistan leaders mentioned below was a co founder of the famous Indian Industrial group Mahindra and Mahindra Ltd., along with Mahindra Brothers. Who Was he?
Q146. Holland used which of these as currency during the 17th century?
Q147. What was the code name for the development of atom bomb by America during the WW II?
Q148. Che Guevara the South American freedom fighter, fought as an armed combatant from which three countries?
Q149. Which explorer served emperor Kublai Khan
Q150. What was the name of Stalin's daughter who defected to US in 1967?
Q151. Who scored the world's first test century?
Q152. In which year Delhi was made the Capital of India
Q153. Who founded the English Methodist movement?
Q154. Which of the following political front has been launched by Mamta Banerjee in West Bengal?
Q155. Mwai Kibaki won a second five-year Presidential term on Dec 30, 2007 in a disputed election that triggered deadly riots by the opposition supporters. Identify the country.
Q156. Name the state-run oil explorer which is the only Indian company to enter the list of world's most admired firms compiled by Fortune magazine and global consulting form Hag group.
Q157. GP Sippy, who died recently, was a(n)
Q158. Who has been named "Newsmaker of the year" by the reputed journal Nature?
Q159. Islam Karimov has been re-elected for third term as the President of ..........
Q160. Which is the largest temple in the World?
Q161. The UN has declared 2008 as the International Year of .......... .
Q162. Who is the new Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) of India?
Q163. Name the realty major which has become India's second most-valued private sector company after RIL?
Q164. Which of the following is associated with the issue of the debt burden of farmers?
Q165. What numbers of targets have been proposed in the Eleventh Plan at the national and state levels respectively for poverty eradication, education, health status of women and children, infrastructure and environment?
Q166. The Gross Budgetary Support (GBS) in the Eleventh Plan has been fixed nearly I 1.5 per cent higher at .......... .
Q167. The overall investment in the Eleventh Plan is of ........... .
Q168. The Eleventh Plan envisages an average nine per cent Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth in the first four years. For the terminal year 2011-12 the GDP growth rate has been targeted at .......... .
Q169. Name the country's highest policy making body which has endorsed Eleventh Five Year Plan document.
Q170. 34. Which of the following statements are true about the study on municipal finance conducted by the RBI's Development Research Group (DRG)?
A. '1,000 cr is needed every year for urban infrastructure in next ten years.
B. Out of 18 functions to be performed by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs), less than half have a financing source; each function should be backed by a financing source
C. Municipal bond market norms should be liberalised
D. ULBs have considerable scope for debt financing
E. Revenues and expenditure have to be matched by reforming property tax.
Q171. Which of the following statements are true about the agreement signed between India and China?
A. India and China agreed to continue high-level exchange. Beijing invited President Pratibha Patil while India invited Chairman of the Chinese National People's Congress to visit India in 2008.
B. Foreign ministers of both countries will visit this year-Pranab Mukherjee in the first half of 2008 while Yang Jiechi in the second half.
C. India is to host joint military exercises this year. Defense dialogue is also to be held at the level of Defense Secretary this year.
D. Bilateral trade target has been revised to $60 billion by 2010. Earlier target was $40 billion, but both countries have already touched $38 billion.
E. MoU between Planning Commission and the Chinese National Development Reforms Commission, along with nine other pacts, has been signed.
Q172. Bernard Kouchner, who visited India recently, is the foreign minister of ........... .
Q173. Name the largest telecom service provider in the country which has introduced a personal accidental insurance coverage policy, free of cost, for its 34 million customers having landline, WLL and post-paid mobile.
Q174. After a threat by UNESCO to drop the Bharatpur bird sanctuary from its World Heritage List, ........... government is scrambling to bring 300 million cubic feet of water from Goverdhan drain to Keoladeo National Park in the hope that it will bring back the days of feathered glory.
Q175. Study the following arrangement of alphabets and answer the question given: D U B C A B E D C A B U D C B A E D B C A D E B A U C D A E B . How many meaningful words can be formed with the alphabets which are first, second, fifth and sixth from the right end of the above arrangement?
Q176. STATEMENT: The municipal corporation advised all the people living in the shanties along the beaches to move to higher places during monsoon. ASSUMPTIONS: (1) Many people living in the shanties may leave the city and relocate themselves elsewhere in the state. (2) Majority of the people living in the shanties along the beach may try to relocate to higher places during monsoon.
Q177. In the question below is given three statements followed by three conclusions numbeFF0000 (1),(2) and )3). You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.STATEMENTS: All grapes are mangoes. Some oranges are mangoes. Some leaves are organges. CONCLUSIONS: (1) Some leaves are mangoes. (2) Some organges are grapes. (3) Some leaves are grapes.
Q178. In a group of six women there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija and Vanaja are mong the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailaja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress who among the following is both a dancer and a violonist?
Q179. In the sequence 462, 420, 380, XXX, 306. XXX stands for
Q180. Give antonym for ANCIENT
Q181. Why is your time .................like this?
Q182. Read the following sentence carefully and find out whether there is/are any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No Error' the answer is (5). (ignore errors of punctuation, if any) .......As a child (1) / I always want to (2) / have a bicycle (3) / of my own. (4) / No error (5).
Q183. Read the following sentence carefully and find out whether there is/are any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No Error' the answer is (5). (ignore errors of punctuation, if any) ........Several banks (1) / are shown interest (2) / in the proposed development (3) / of the public sector (4) / No error. (5).
Q184. Read the following sentence carefully and find out whether there is/are any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No Error' the answer is (5). (ignore errors of punctuation, if any) .......In order (1) to be successful (2) / you must worked (3) / very hard. (4) / No error (5)
Q185. In the question, a part of the sentence is highlighted. Replace the highlighted part with the options given which may improve the sentence. "e;During the recent floods, we waded through waist deep water for almost half a kilometre."e;
Q186. Pick out the most effective word given, and fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete: "e; We must have .....that these drugs are harmless."e;
Q187. Read the following sentence carefully and find out whether there is/are any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No Error' the answer is (5). (ignore errors of punctuation, if any) ......I was very lucky (1) / that day (2) / and catched (3) / a lot of fish. (4) / No error (5)
Q188. India's former President and leading scientist Abdul Kalam died while delivering a lecture on 21st July 2015. At which place?
Q189. In July 2015, in the stampede on the banks of river Godavari over the Mahapushkaram celebrations, 35 people died. This tragic incident took place at...............
Q190. In July 2015, in the stampede on the banks of river Godavari over the Mahapushkaram celebrations, 35 people died. This tragic incident took place at...............
Q191. Example of non-numeric data is ......
Q192. To access a website or web content from a web server, the client sends a(n).........
Q193. ROLLBACK in a database is .......statement.
Q194. Telnet is a .....based computer protocol
Q195. Of the following, which ar3 the pointing devices?
Q196. Which of the following is used to connect networks of similar protocols?
Q197. When you enter text in a cell in Exce, it also appears in the ..........
Q198. The correct shortcut key to bring the convert case option is
Q199. MIME is ....
Q200. .......is another name for pre-programmed formula in Excel.

 

 

03: 00: 00

 

Exit